Internals Semester 1 for 2024-25 LLB 3YDC at Padala Rama Reddi Law College

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Padala Rama Reddi Law College, Hyderabad

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Time-Table for First Internal Examinations

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LL.B. 3YDC - November 2024

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Important Notes

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• All exam papers will be given at once.
• Students may complete the exams at their own pace and leave once done.
• Each paper is allotted 40 minutes.
• No regular classes will be held on exam days.
• All students have been allotted rooms based on roll numbers. They are to sit the respective room. Single chairs will be provided.

Pattern

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Pattern

• 10 MCQ
• 10 Fill in the Blanks
• 5 2m questions
• 2 Such internals will be conducted which will be 40 marks total and divided by 2 for the final award of marks.

Environmental Law

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Important Concepts for Internals

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• Food chain
• Environment
• Ecosystem
• Ecology

Important Questions for Internal and Main Examination

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1. Define Environment.
2. Define Ecosystem.
3. Define Food Chain.
4. What is Environmental Pollution?
5. Explain Global Warming.
6. Explain Ozone Layer Depletion.
7. What is Biodiversity?
8. Write a brief note on Absolute Liability.
9. Define Public Nuisance.
10. Define Food Web.

Family Law - 1 - Hindu Law

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Important Questions for Internals

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1. The word Hindu includes _____________
   (A) Buddhist (B) Sikh (C) Jain (D) All the above

2. The Mitakshara school sub-schools are Benaras School, Mithila School, Maharashtra School and _______________ School.

3. A person shall be Hindu by religion
   (A) if both of his parents are Hindus
   (B) if one of his parents is a Hindu & has been brought up as a Hindu
   (C) either A or B
   (D) none of the above

4. The ancient sources of Hindu law includes
   (A) Shriti & Smriti
   (B) Precedent
   (C) Legislation
   (D) all the above

5. Which of the following is not included in the term Hindu
   (A) Sikhs
   (B) Jains
   (C) Parsis
   (D) Buddhists

6. Under the Hindu Law, marriage is a ______________
   (A) Sacrament
   (B) Contract
   (C) both A & B
   (D) Neither A nor B

7. Who amongst the following is not a Hindu _____________
   (A) Christian
   (B) Parsi
   (C) Jew
   (D) all the above

8. The Hindu Marriage Act came in force on
   (A) 1st January 1955
   (B) 1st January 1956
   (C) 18th May 1956
   (D) 18th May 1955

9. When two persons are the descendants of a common ancestor by the same wife they are said to be related to each other by
   (A) Half-blood
   (B) Full-blood
   (C) Uterine-blood
   (D) either A or B

10. When two persons are the descendants of a common ancestor but by different wives they are said be related to each other by
    (A) Full-blood
    (B) Half-blood
    (C) Uterine-blood
    (D) either B or C

11. A marriage without requisite ceremonies under the Hindu marriage Act, 1955 is
    (A) Irregular
    (B) Voidable
    (C) Null and void
    (D) valid

12. The Section of Hindu marriage Act,1955 for providing the conditions of a valid marriage
    (A) Section 7 & 4
    (B) section 8
    (C) section 10 & 11
    (D) section 5 & 7

13. A marriage solemnised between any two Hindus in violation of section 5 (iii) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 shall be
    (A) valid
    (B) invalid
    (C) void
    (D) voidable

14. The section of the Hindu Marriage Act,1955 providing for restitution of conjugal rights is
    (A) Section 7
    (B) section 8
    (C) section 9
    (D) section 10

15. Section 17 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provided for
    (A) punishment for child marriage
    (B) punishment for bigamy
    (C) punishment for fraud
    (D) both B & C

16. Section 8 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1995 provides for
    (A) registration of Hindu marriage
    (B) restitution of conjugal rights
    (C) grounds for divorce
    (D) judicial separation

17. An order under section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is an
    (A) interlocutory order and no appeal lies against it
    (B) is an appealable order
    (C) is an appealable order but with the leave of the court only
    (D) final order

18. Adultery is a ground for ________________
    (A) Judicial separation
    (B) Divorce
    (C) both A & B
    (D) none of the above

19. A decree of Judicial separation
    (A) dissolves the marriage
    (B) does not dissolve the marriage and the marriage subsists
    (C) merely suspends marital rights and obligations during the subsistence of the decree
    (D) both B & C

20. A marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act,1955 must be solemnised in accordance with the customary rites and ceremonies of
    (A) the bride
    (B) the bridegroom
    (C) both bride and bridegroom
    (D) either bride or bridegroom

21. Bigamy is committed, if the subsisting marriage is ____________
    (A) valid
    (B) voidable
    (C) void
    (D) either A or B

22. Non-registration of marriage under section 8 of the Hindu marriage Act, 1955
    (A) invalidates the marriage and calls for imposition of penalty
    (B) does not invalidate the marriage but calls for imposition of penalty
    (C) neither invalidates the marriage nor calls for imposition of penalty
    (D) makes the marriage voidable

23. In case of bigamous marriage, the second wife ______________
    (A) has a status of wife
    (B) has no status of wife
    (C) may or may not have a status of wife
    (D) none of the above

24. Conjugal rights within the meaning of section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 means _______________
    (A) Marital rights
    (B) Cohabitation rights
    (C) Rights of the parties to live together
    (D) all the above

25. A marriage, solemnised between any two Hindus, one of whom is not having the mental capacity to marry, shall be
    (A) void
    (B) voidable
    (C) valid
    (D) invalid

26. Section 18 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 prescribes the punishment for
    (A) Child marriage
    (B) Marriage between sapindas
    (C) Marriage between persons within prohibited degree of relationship
    (D) All the above

27. Section 5(i) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 introduces
    (A) Polygamy
    (B) Monogamy
    (C) Polyandry
    (D) None of the above

28. The marriage may be solemnised between two Hindus if
    (A) Bridegroom completes age of 21 years and bride completes 18 years
    (B) Bridegroom completes age of 18 years and bride completes 21 years
    (C) Both bridegroom and bride complete the age of 21 years
    (D) Both bridegroom and bride complete the age of 18 years

29. A marriage solemnised between any two Hindus, one of whom is having a spouse living at the time of marriage, shall be
    (A) Valid
    (B) Void
    (C) Voidable
    (D) Invalid

30. Ceremonies to marriage have been laid down in minute details in
    (A) Grihya sutras
    (B) Dharma sutras
    (C) Dharma shastras
    (D) All the above

31. A party is regarded as not having the mental capacity to solemnise the marriage if suffering from
    (A) Unsoundness of mind
    (B) Mental disorder
    (C) Insanity or epilepsy
    (D) All the above

32. Doctrine of Factum Valet enables to cure the violation of
    (A) A directory provision or a mere matter of form
    (B) Fundamental principles
    (C) Essence of the transaction
    (D) All the above

33. A boy of 17 years marries a girl of 15 years. The marriage is
    (A) Void
    (B) Voidable
    (C) Valid and not punishable
    (D) Valid and punishable

34. ‘A’ marries ‘B’, the widow of his elder brother. The marriage is
    (A) Valid
    (B) Void
    (C) Voidable
    (D) None of these

35. A marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 between two persons within prohibited degrees of relationship is
    (A) Valid
    (B) Void
    (C) Voidable
    (D) Irregular

36. In Hindu marriage, if the bride and bridegroom have taken 2½ steps around the holy fire, the marriage is
    (A) Valid
    (B) Voidable
    (C) Void
    (D) None of the above

37. The decree of divorce has been passed between A and B. A celebrates second marriage with C within six months of this decree. This marriage is
    (A) Voidable
    (B) Void
    (C) Invalid
    (D) Valid

38. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 contains the minimum period of desertion for filing a suit for judicial separation
    (A) Three years
    (B) Five years
    (C) One year
    (D) Seven years

39. The punishment prescribed under Section 18 of the Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Act, 2007 from 15 days to
    (A) 60 days
    (B) One year
    (C) Two years
    (D) Three years

40. Withdrawal from the society of the other within the meaning of Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 means
    (A) Mere refusal to have sexual intercourse
    (B) Total repudiation of cohabitation
    (C) Both A & B
    (D) None of the above

41. The remedy for restitution of conjugal rights prescribed under Section 9 of Hindu Marriage Act is available to
    (A) Wife
    (B) Husband
    (C) Both wife and husband
    (D) Only husband, not wife

42. Restitution of conjugal rights can be claimed
    (A) When there is a withdrawal from the society of the other with an excuse
    (B) When there is a withdrawal from the society of the other without any reasonable cause
    (C) When there is a withdrawal from the society of the other without any absolute cause
    (D) Both B & C

43. Onus to prove a reasonable excuse for withdrawal from society is on the
    (A) Petitioner
    (B) Respondent
    (C) Varies with the circumstances of each case
    (D) Either A or B

44. A decree of judicial separation
    (A) Can be rescinded by the parties of their own
    (B) Can be rescinded by the court on the application of either party
    (C) Can be rescinded by the court on application of the decree-holder
    (D) Either A or B

45. A marriage is voidable under Section 12 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 on the ground of
    (A) Mental capacity
    (B) Physical incapacity
    (C) Both mental and physical incapacity
    (D) Such marriage is void and not voidable

46. Section 22 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 lays down that every proceeding under the Hindu Marriage Act shall be conducted in
    (A) Open court
    (B) Camera
    (C) Family court
    (D) Both B & C

47. To claim maintenance under Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
    (A) The claimant should establish that he or she has no independent income sufficient for maintenance and support
    (B) Applicant’s good conduct should be established
    (C) Both A & B
    (D) None of the above

48. Which of the following is not a ground for divorce?
    (A) Insanity
    (B) Epilepsy
    (C) Leprosy
    (D) Venereal diseases

49. In which of the following cases will there be no desertion?
    (A) A spouse leaving the other without any cause, but later on shows an inclination to return
    (B) A spouse leaving the other without any cause, without the other’s consent, and without sincere efforts to return
    (C) A spouse leaving the other without any cause and defeating all attempts to join the other
    (D) None of the above

50. Non-resumption of cohabitation between the parties after the passing of a decree of judicial separation is a ground for divorce under Section 13 (1A)(i) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. The non-resumption of cohabitation must be for a minimum period of
    (A) Six months
    (B) One year
    (C) Eighteen months
    (D) Two years

51. The breakdown theory of divorce is reflected in which section of the Hindu Marriage Act
    (A) Section 13(1)
    (B) Section 13A
    (C) Section 13B
    (D) None of the above

52. A party to the petition for divorce by mutual consent
    (A) Can withdraw the consent unilaterally
    (B) Can withdraw the consent with the consent of the other party
    (C) Can withdraw the consent with the leave of the court
    (D) Cannot withdraw the consent once given

53. Desertion is inchoate and becomes complete only
    (A) When the deserted spouse files a petition for matrimonial relief
    (B) When the deserting spouse files a petition for matrimonial relief
    (C) After the statutory period of 2 years
    (D) Both A & C

54. Which of the following is not a defence to cruelty
    (A) Insanity
    (B) Provocation
    (C) Self-defence
    (D) All the above

55. Section 14 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 enacts a fair trial rule according to which
    (A) A couple can get a divorce within 6 months of marriage
    (B) A couple can get a divorce within six months of marriage only in exceptional cases
    (C) A couple can get a divorce within one year of marriage
    (D) A couple can get a divorce only after one year of marriage except in exceptional cases

56. A man is guilty of raping his wife unless she is under the age of
    (A) 12 years
    (B) 13 years
    (C) 15 years
    (D) 14 years

57. A Hindu ceases to be a Hindu by
    (A) Renunciation
    (B) Expressing faith in another religion and practicing it
    (C) Conversion
    (D) All the above

58. Leprosy as a ground for divorce under section 13(1)(iv) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 must be
    (A) Virulent
    (B) Incurable
    (C) Either A or B
    (D) Both A & B

59. A party to the petition for divorce by mutual consent
    (A) Can withdraw the consent unilaterally
    (B) Can withdraw the consent with the consent of the other party
    (C) Can withdraw the consent with the leave of the court
    (D) Cannot withdraw the consent once given

60. A bigamous marriage contracted before the commencement of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
    (A) Ipso facto becomes void
    (B) Becomes voidable
    (C) Remains valid
    (D) Becomes void after the declaration by court

61. Section 13A is not applicable when the dissolution of marriage is sought on the ground of
    (A) Conversion
    (B) Renunciation
    (C) Presumption of death
    (D) All the above

62. Provision for maintenance and litigation expenses during the pendency of proceedings are contained in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 under
    (A) Section 23
    (B) Section 24
    (C) Section 25
    (D) Section 26

63. Section 14 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 imposes a ban on
    (A) Petitions for divorce
    (B) Petitions for judicial separation
    (C) Petition for nullity of marriage
    (D) All the above

64. According to the Marriage Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001, the application for payment of expenses and such monthly sum shall be disposed of
    (A) Within 60 days of the date of service of notice on either party
    (B) Within 90 days from the date of service of notice on either party
    (C) Within 120 days from the date of service of notice on either party
    (D) None of the above

65. According to the Marriage Laws (Amendment) Act, 2003, every appeal under section 28 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 can be preferred within
    (A) 30 days from the date of the decree or order
    (B) 45 days from the date of decree or order
    (C) 60 days from the date of decree of order
    (D) 90 days from the date of decree of order

66. A valid adoption made under the provisions of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 can be cancelled by
    (A) The adopter
    (B) The natural parents
    (C) Both A & B
    (D) Neither A nor B

67. If a Hindu dies leaving behind more than one widow
    (A) All the widows together can adopt a child
    (B) Only the eldest can adopt a child
    (C) Each widow can adopt in the absence of her own child
    (D) Only the youngest can adopt a child

68. An adoption made by a Hindu male without the consent of his wife is
    (A) Valid
    (B) Voidable
    (C) Illegal
    (D) Void

69. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 the ceremonies required for adoption are
    (A) Datta Homam
    (B) Giving and Taking
    (C) Either A or B
    (D) Both A & B

70. When a child of opposite sex is proposed to be adopted then the adopter must be senior to it by at least
    (A) 14 years
    (B) 18 years
    (C) 21 years
    (D) 12 years

71. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 the requisites of a valid adoption have been laid down in
    (A) Section 4
    (B) Section 5
    (C) Section 10
    (D) Section 6

72. A married woman can adopt a child
    (A) With the consent of the husband
    (B) Without the consent of the husband
    (C) Either A or B
    (D) None of the above

73. Any male Hindu has the capacity to adopt if he is
    (A) Of sound mind and not a minor
    (B) Of unsound mind but not a minor
    (C) Of sound mind who may be a minor
    (D) All the above

74. An adopted child
    (A) Can be given in adoption generally
    (B) Cannot be given in adoption
    (C) Can be given in adoption with the consent of the natural parents
    (D) Can be given in adoption only with the prior permission of the court

75. An adopted child
    (A) Cannot renounce his adoptive parents and return to the family of his birth
    (B) Can renounce his adoptive parents but cannot return to the family of his birth
    (C) Can renounce his adoptive parents and return to the family of his birth
    (D) None of the above

76. A guardian of a child can give the child in adoption if
    (A) The father of the child is dead
    (B) The mother of the child is dead
    (C) Both father and mother of the child are dead
    (D) All the above

77. A Hindu female or male having a son can adopt __________
    (A) A daughter
    (B) A son and a daughter
    (C) Two sons and two daughters
    (D) A son

78. A guardian of a child can give the child in adoption under Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956
    (A) Without seeking anyone’s permission
    (B) With the previous permission of the court
    (C) With or without seeking the permission of the court
    (D) With the consent of the distant relative of the child

79. Section 12 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 deals with
    (A) Effects of adoption
    (B) Rights of the adoptive parents to dispose of the property
    (C) Presumptions as to the documents relating to adoptions
    (D) Cancellation of adoption

80. In case of adoption of a son, the adoptive father or mother must not have a living ___________
    (A) Son
    (B) Son’s son
    (C) Son’s son’s son
    (D) All the above

81. Any property that might have vested in the adoptee before the adoption on adoption
    (A) Ceases to vest in the adoptee
    (B) Continues to vest in the adoptee without any obligation attached to the property
    (C) Continues to vest in the adoptee subject to any obligation attached to the property
    (D) Continuation or cessation of property depends on the terms of adoptions

82. Where a Hindu who has a wife living adopts a child, the said wife is called
    (A) The natural mother of the child
    (B) The adoptive mother of the child
    (C) The stepmother of the child
    (D) Either B or C

83. An illegitimate son of a Hindu is entitled to maintenance during his
    (A) Majority till marriage
    (B) Lifetime
    (C) He is not entitled to maintenance
    (D) Minority

84. Section 19 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 provides for maintenance of
    (A) Wife
    (B) Children
    (C) Parents
    (D) Widowed daughter-in-law

85. The obligation of the husband to maintain his wife is
    (A) Co-extensive with property
    (B) A personal obligation
    (C) Either A or B
    (D) Both A & B

86. The provision for maintenance of wife who lives with her husband has been made under which of the following sections of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956
    (A) Section 19(1)
    (B) Section 18(1)
    (C) Section 18(2)
    (D) Section 18(3)

87. Where a widow or an unmarried woman adopts a child and subsequently marries, the husband to whom she subsequently remarries/marries shall be the
    (A) Step-father of the child
    (B) Adoptive father of the child
    (C) Natural father of the child
    (D) None of the above

88. Father-in-law’s obligation to maintain the daughter-in-law is
    (A) A personal obligation
    (B) Co-extensive with the ancestral property in the hands of father-in-law
    (C) Co-extensive with the personal property of the father-in-law
    (D) Both B & C

89. Under section 13 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 an agreement restricting the power of alienation of property by the adoptive parents is
    (A) Void
    (B) Voidable at the instance of the adoptive parents
    (C) Voidable at the instance of the person in whose favour the property has been alienated
    (D) Void

90. On valid adoption, the adopted child is deemed to be the child of his or her adoptive father or mother
    (A) With effect from the date of adoption
    (B) With effect from the date of her birth
    (C) Either A or B
    (D) Both A or B

91. The word ___________ literally means what has been remembered.

92. If the mandatory conditions of marriage are violated then the marriage is a _________ marriage.

93. A voidable marriage is a perfectly valid marriage so long as it is not ________.
    (A) Accepted
    (B) Avoided
    (C) Performed
    (D) Challenged by a third party

94. Non-resumption of cohabitation between the parties after the passing of decree of judicial separation is a ground for divorce under section 13 (1A)(i) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. The non-resumption of cohabitation must be for a minimum period of ___________

95. Doctrine of ___________________ means “A fact cannot be changed by hundred texts.”

96. According to the Marriage Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001, the application for payment of expenses and such monthly sum shall be disposed of within ________ days from the date of service of notice on either party.

97. Judicial separation either leads to __________________ or divorce.

98. Section 23 (2) of the Hindu Marriage Act imposes a duty on the court to effect a ________________ between the parties.

99. Section 13 (2) (iv) requires that the marriage should be repudiated by the wife before she attains the age of __________.

100. A petition for nullity must be filed within ______ of the discovery of fraud or force.

101. ________________________________________ means compelling the other party by a legal process to join the conjugal society with the petitioner.

102. Section 14 of the Hindu Marriage Act provides that no marriage may be dissolved unless a period of one year has elapsed since the solemnization of marriage known as _________________ rule.

103. “Animus deserdendi” means __________________.

104. A voidable marriage is a perfectly valid marriage so long as it is not ________.

105. Mitakshara school got this name through _____________ commentary on the Yajnavalkya Smriti.

106. Dayabhaga School got this name through _____________________ commentary.

Short Questions

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1. Sources of Hindu Law.
2. Conditions of a valid marriage.
3. Grounds for divorce.
4. Maintenance pendente lite.
5. Requisites of a valid custom.
6. Effects of adoption.
7. Divorce by mutual consent.
8. Who is a Hindu.
9. Judicial Separation.
10. Restitution of conjugal rights.

Contracts - 1: Important Questions

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Objective Type Questions

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1. What is the leading case for minors with respect to contracts?

   • Answer: Mihir Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghosh

2. What is a minor liable for in contracts?

   • Answer: Necessaries supplied to him or to any person he is legally bound to support.

3. When the consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, or misrepresentation, it is ____ at the option of the aggrieved party.

   • Answer: Voidable

4. A contract is said to be induced by ____ when the relationship between two parties is such that one can influence the other.

   • Answer: Undue influence

5. Definition of Coercion (Section 15):

   • Answer: Coercion is committing or threatening to commit any act forbidden by the IPC or unlawful detaining of property with the intention of causing any person to enter into an agreement.

6. Display of goods by a shopkeeper with price tags is not an offer. What is it?

   • Answer: Invitation to make an offer

7. Acceptance of an offer must be ____ and ____.

   • Answer: Absolute and unconditional

8. A and B make an agreement for the sale and purchase of a particular horse. Unknown to both parties, the horse is dead. Since both parties committed a ____ mistake, the agreement is void.

   • Answer: Bilateral mistake

9. Consideration and objects are unlawful when either the consideration or object is:

   • 1. Forbidden by law
   • 2. Fraudulent
   • 3. Immoral
   • 4. Against public policy
   • 5. All of the above - Answer

10. Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer ____.

    • Answer: When it is put in the course of transmission to him so as to be out of the power of acceptor (e.g., when it is posted in the mailbox).

11. Consideration must move at the desire of the promisor and should be given by the promisee.

12. What happens when an offer is met with a counter-offer?

    • Answer: The original offer is rejected and cannot be accepted later.

13. What is a cross offer?

    • Answer: When two parties make identical offers to each other without knowledge of each other’s offer. It does not result in a contract.

14. What is a voidable contract?

    • Answer: A contract that is valid until avoided by the party entitled to avoid it.

15. A promises to pay B ₹500 if he beats C. A later refuses to pay. Can B recover the amount?

    • Answer: No, it is an illegal agreement and hence unenforceable.

16. An agreement which is not enforceable is ____.

    • Answer: Void

17. The law of contracts primarily deals with _____.

    • Answer: Agreements enforceable by law.

Short Questions

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1. Essentials of a Valid Contract

   • Describe the necessary elements that constitute a legally binding contract, such as offer, acceptance, lawful consideration, and capacity of parties.

2. “Agreement without Consideration is Void” - Exceptions to the Rule

   • Explain the circumstances under which an agreement without consideration is valid, as per Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act.

3. “Stranger to a Contract Cannot Sue” - Exceptions to the Rule

   • Detail the exceptions to the principle that only parties to a contract can sue.

4. Capacity of Parties to a Contract / Minor’s Agreements

   • Discuss who is legally capable of entering into a contract and the special rules regarding contracts involving minors.

5. Free Consent

   • Define free consent and explain when consent is not considered free (i.e., cases of coercion, undue influence, fraud, and misrepresentation).

Constitution Law - 1

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You are to study about Fundamental rights, Mandal Commission case, Free speech etc.